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Lex

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It's not disgraceful. Disgraceful is a word that could be applied to the two-faced attitudes of those complaining about Scotland not having rhe government they voted for in Westminster whilst ignoring the same applies for most Scots with Holyrood. At least Westminster has a committee system that has the gumption to hold the executive to account and a second chamber to scrutinise legislation.

You might want to review your opinion on the Westminster committee system.

http://www.bbc.co.uk/news/business-28877033

Would appear that they lack the ability to hold the executive to account.

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It's partly my North Sea oil, being from the east coast with views of the sea. Why should people from Glasgow get the benefit and not me?!!!

Possibly because Glasgow will be in an iScotland and Berwick won't. I used to have a grand view of the Eildon hills but it doesn't make them partly mine.

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Possibly because Glasgow will be in an iScotland and Berwick won't. I used to have a grand view of the Eildon hills but it doesn't make them partly mine.

Maybe only east coast communities should get the benefit.
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I wasn't aware it had been asked.

The UK is clearly a nation state.

Erm no, it quite clearly isn't. France is a nation state. The UK is a unitary state, in the form of a kingdom. The UK does not claim its territory because its subjects are British; they are held solely by virtue of belonging to the monarch. France has for two centuries justified its state existence on the basis of French nationality; at no time has British nationality been used to justify the UK state's existence - not by governments, and not in political discourse.

Swing and a miss, Britnat.

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The two are not mutually exclusive.

Well no: the two quite clearly are mutually exclusive. Which is why multinational states in history have been, almost entirely, dissolved into 'nation states': the two being not the same thing, and not compatible with each other. If you're struggling with that concept, try some basic reading on Austria-Hungary, Soviet Union, Czechoslovakia, Yugoslavia.

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Well no: the two quite clearly are mutually exclusive. Which is why multinational states in history have been, almost entirely, dissolved into 'nation states': the two being not the same thing, and not compatible with each other. If you're struggling with that concept, try some basic reading on Austria-Hungary, Soviet Union, Czechoslovakia, Yugoslavia.

Wrong.

"The 1878 Treaty of Berlin, which was equally far-reaching, had seven signatories, comprising four nation states (Britain, France, Germany, and Italy) and three empires (Austria-Hungary, Russia, and Turkey). "

"Since a common language is essential for effective communication, nations are usually identified with one language, but there are many nations which speak the same language, such as Britain and Ireland or Spain and Mexico, but are quite distinct. Where several languages are spoken in a nation state, one is generally predominant.""

"The 1815 Treaty of Vienna, which represented the international community as then understood, had eight signatories, of which only five (Britain, France, Spain, Portugal, and Sweden) were nation states as we have described them. "

Swing and a miss... thanks for playing... telt... etc etc

http://www.thenationstate.co.uk/TheNationState.pdf

Edited by H_B
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Erm no, it quite clearly isn't. France is a nation state. The UK is a unitary state, in the form of a kingdom. The UK does not claim its territory because its subjects are British; they are held solely by virtue of belonging to the monarch. France has for two centuries justified its state existence on the basis of French nationality; at no time has British nationality been used to justify the UK state's existence - not by governments, and not in political discourse.

Swing and a miss, Britnat.

This is not the definition of a nation state champ.

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